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These 10 free ABVM-ENDO questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the ABVM Endovascular Medicine Examination blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
At a preventive visit, a healthy 69-year-old man reports an eight-pack-year smoking history, ending 30 years ago. He has no abdominal or back symptoms, no family history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, and no previous abdominal aortic imaging. Under USPSTF recommendations, what screening should he be offered?
Correct answer: B - Offer a one-time abdominal aortic screening ultrasound.
The perfusion assessment for a 68-year-old man with diabetes, chronic kidney disease, and a six-week plantar ulcer reports an ankle-brachial index of 1.22 and ankle systolic pressure of 171 mmHg. Great-toe pressure is 24 mmHg with a markedly damped waveform; the result is reproducible after warming. He has neuropathy and denies rest pain. Which ischemia grade should be recorded in the Society for Vascular Surgery WIfI classification?
Correct answer: A - I3: severe ischemia
Nine days after aortic catheterization, a 72-year-old man develops painful blue toes and livedoid skin changes on both feet. Creatinine has risen from 1.1 to 2.7 mg/dL, and eosinophils are 11%. Pedal pulses remain palpable, arterial duplex shows patent femoropopliteal and tibial vessels, and the platelet count is essentially unchanged from baseline. What single diagnosis best explains the skin and renal findings?
Correct answer: B - Systemic cholesterol crystal embolization.
During angioplasty of a mid-superficial femoral artery stenosis, a long intimal flap develops with markedly delayed distal flow. Prolonged repeat balloon inflation does not relieve the obstruction. The guidewire remains in the distal true lumen, and angiography shows neither thrombus nor extravasation. What would most directly correct the residual mechanical problem?
Correct answer: C - Deploy a self-expanding stent across the flow-limiting dissection.
A 54-year-old woman is hospitalized with a saddle pulmonary embolus, right-ventricular enlargement, and elevated troponin. After 24 hours of therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin, her dyspnea is improving. Blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, pulse 88/min, oxygen saturation 96% on room air, and lactate 1.2 mmol/L; mentation and urine output are normal. A consultant proposes clot removal solely because the embolus straddles the pulmonary-artery bifurcation. The most appropriate course is to:
Correct answer: D - Continue therapeutic anticoagulation with inpatient monitoring.
Four days after transient loss of vision in his left eye, a 76-year-old man has a normal neurologic examination. CTA shows 82% left internal carotid stenosis by NASCET criteria, without distal collapse; brain imaging shows no large infarct or hemorrhage. The lesion is surgically accessible, he has no hostile-neck features or major operative contraindication, and the center's audited perioperative stroke/death rate is 3%. Antiplatelet and high-intensity statin therapy have been started. Which revascularization plan best fits this presentation?
Correct answer: C - Perform carotid endarterectomy within 14 days of the visual event.
A woman with atrial fibrillation develops abrupt foot pain six hours before evaluation. Sensation is reduced across the forefoot, ankle dorsiflexion is weak, arterial Doppler signals are absent, and venous Doppler signals remain audible. There is no fixed mottling or muscle rigor. Imaging obtained before transfer shows a focal femoropopliteal embolus with patent distal runoff. Ten days earlier, she underwent craniotomy for evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which treatment best balances the limb findings and recent intracranial surgery?
Correct answer: A - Immediate surgical thromboembolectomy of the occluded femoropopliteal segment.
Ultrasound confirms an acute proximal lower-extremity DVT in a woman at 25 weeks of pregnancy. Her symptoms are manageable at home, there is no limb threat or bleeding, creatinine clearance is 94 mL/min, and no delivery or invasive procedure is anticipated. Which outpatient anticoagulant regimen is appropriate?
Correct answer: B - Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneously every 12 hours.
CTA in a patient with abrupt chest and back pain shows an aortic dissection beginning distal to the left subclavian artery, without ascending-aortic involvement, rupture, or branch-vessel malperfusion. After analgesia, blood pressure remains 188/104 mmHg and heart rate 112/min. There is no heart block, acute aortic regurgitation, or contraindication to beta blockade. Which initial drug sequence best reduces aortic-wall stress?
Correct answer: D - Start esmolol, then add nicardipine if blood pressure remains elevated.
Six months after infrarenal EVAR, an asymptomatic patient still has delayed contrast filling of the aneurysm sac through two lumbar arteries. The sac has decreased from 61 mm to 55 mm using comparable measurements. Multiphase CTA shows intact proximal and distal seals, no component separation, and no fabric defect. How should the persistent sac filling influence management?
Correct answer: D - Continue imaging surveillance without endoleak intervention.
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